Question About The Do Not Call Registry
If I contact a person in foreclosure on the telephone and their phone number is on the do not call registry, am I in violation?
Would my action be viewed as that of a telemarketer?
Good question. It seems that most people are getting around the do not call issue by saying that it's a public service announcement. Personally, I wouldn't worry about it and I'd call them. You're only one person not a large corporation, so it would seem that your liability would not be as great. Furthermore, if they aren't making the effort to pay their mortgage, I doubt they'll jump through the hoops to notify whoever it is they have to in order to get you in trouble.
Go to http://www.ftc.gov/bcp/conline/pubs/buspubs/tsrcomp.htm
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As long as you're not trying to sell them a product or service you're good to go.
Quote:
On 2004-10-11 11:37, radio52-com wrote:
As long as you're not trying to sell them a product or service you're good to go.
As an investor what are you doing "Buying Real Estate" You are providing a service are you not?
You are soliciting your services to stop the foreclosure.
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Understand that some calls are not covered. Once your number has been on the registry for three months, most telemarketing calls will stop. However, you still may get:
calls from — or on behalf of — political organizations, charities, and telephone surveyors;
calls from companies with whom you have an existing business relationship. A company may call you for 18 months after you make a purchase or three months after you submit an inquiry or application;
calls from companies you’ve given permission to call.
The fact remains if you call and solicit you are governed by the "Do not call" rule.
To this point I am unaware of any investor who has been held liable under "Do not call" rule.
You should not take a small section of the law as the whole law applies.
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I know I am a bit late and by NO MEANS an attorney or authority on the subject...but the definition of a telemarketer seems to be one who tries '...to induce the purchase of goods or services...'. I don't see this applying to a phone call ascertaining status of property. There appears to be NO intent of 'inducing purchase' from the person who receives the call. Just my two cents...don't go to court with it...lol.